Date: Wed, 10 Oct 2001 11:13:30 -0700 From: Terry Lambert <tlambert2@mindspring.com> To: Dag-Erling Smorgrav <des@ofug.org> Cc: Unhappy Adobe Customer <bsd_appliance@yahoo.com>, freebsd-chat@FreeBSD.ORG Subject: Re: SSSCA? Message-ID: <3BC48FCA.93D7FA27@mindspring.com> References: <20011008193423.77229.qmail@web11901.mail.yahoo.com> <3BC34784.4D56D9DF@mindspring.com> <xzplmikcop2.fsf@flood.ping.uio.no> <3BC404A6.89276494@mindspring.com> <xzphet7dgra.fsf@flood.ping.uio.no> <3BC410E4.ACF8074B@mindspring.com> <xzpg08rh88u.fsf@flood.ping.uio.no>
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Dag-Erling Smorgrav wrote:
> > "Ex pos facto" refers to a law enacted after the fact not being
>
> Once again, neither "i pos facto" nor "ex pos facto" have any meaning.
> The expression you are thinking of is "ex post facto".
I learned most of my Latin from Italian and Hispanic sources.
If you check the net for references, you will see that the
spelling "ex pos facto" -- without the "t" -- is commonly used.
> "I pos facto", on the other hand, doesn't mean anything at all. It
> probably stems from your confusing "ex post facto" with "ipso facto"
> ("consequently" or "in and of itself") which is probably a contraction
> of "ex ipso facto" meaning "due to this very fact" or "due to the fact
> itself".
I am not confusing "ipso facto"; I'm dyslexic, but I'm not
_that_ bad. 8-).
So how in Latin would _you_ say "before the fact"?
-- Terry
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