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Date:      Sun, 23 Dec 2001 16:15:59 -0800
From:      Dave Walton <dwalton@acm.org>
To:        Mike Meyer <mwm-dated-1009583789.5d0de0@mired.org>
Cc:        chat@freebsd.org
Subject:   Re: Does Linux violate the GPL?
Message-ID:  <20011223161559.0f20faa8.dwalton@acm.org>
In-Reply-To: <15398.28461.605242.845831@guru.mired.org>
References:  <20011223153232.4b562a74.dwalton@acm.org> <15398.28461.605242.845831@guru.mired.org>

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On Sun, 23 Dec 2001 17:56:29 -0600, "Mike Meyer"
<mwm-dated-1009583789.5d0de0@mired.org> wrote:

> You're making the same mistake that Gary kept trying to straighten
> out. Neither BSDL nor GPL place any restrictions on *use* of the
> covered work.  The restrictions are on distribution. So all the places
> where you say "may not legally use", you really need to say "may not
> legally distribute". I.e. - if I take T and add S - neither of which I
> hold a copyright to - I can legally use it without violating either
> license, but I can't let anyone else have a copy.

Rats.  I knew there was going to be a mistake in my wording somewhere. 
When I wrote "use", I was thinking of something along the lines of
"incorporate and distribute".  So if I substitute "may not legally
distribute" for all instances of "may not legally use", does that remove
all your objections to my statements?

Thanks,
Dave


-- 
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Dave Walton                                            dwalton@acm.org
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