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Date:      Tue, 21 Nov 2000 19:41:38 -0800
From:      Alfred Perlstein <bright@wintelcom.net>
To:        Chris Hill <chris@monochrome.org>
Cc:        bsdnewbie bsdnewbie <bsdnewbie@hotmail.com>, freebsd-questions@FreeBSD.ORG
Subject:   Re: _ DELAY(1) == delay 1 us  ?  1 ms  ?     hz = ?
Message-ID:  <20001121194138.F18037@fw.wintelcom.net>
In-Reply-To: <Pine.BSF.3.96.1001121222732.66703P-100000@localhost>; from chris@monochrome.org on Tue, Nov 21, 2000 at 10:32:38PM -0500
References:  <F239Teip68V8zDv60gx0000162e@hotmail.com> <Pine.BSF.3.96.1001121222732.66703P-100000@localhost>

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* Chris Hill <chris@monochrome.org> [001121 19:32] wrote:
> On Wed, 22 Nov 2000, bsdnewbie bsdnewbie wrote:
> 
> > 	I see many DELAY() in some kernel source code, but I can not make clear how 
> > long does DELAY() delay.  DELAY(1) = ?   And what is hz, hz = ?
> 
> bash-2.02$ man delay
> No manual entry for delay
> 
> Can't answer the first part, but I imagine that hz means Hertz, properly
> abbreviated as Hz. 1 Hz is 1 cycle per second or one second per cycle. 
> Metric prefixes apply, therefore 1 kHz = 1000 cycles per second (0.001
> seconds or 1 ms per cycle), and so on. 

I just committed a manpage for DELAY(9).

hz is usually 100.

-- 
-Alfred Perlstein - [bright@wintelcom.net|alfred@freebsd.org]
"I have the heart of a child; I keep it in a jar on my desk."


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