Date: Mon, 11 May 1998 11:42:33 +1000 (EST) From: Michael Cronk <michael@one.com.au> To: undisclosed-recipients:; Message-ID: <199805110142.LAA07086@one.one.com.au>
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Message sent at 11:18 AM on 11 May 98 by PXX::MICHAEL. Id: 65052. Message sent at 11:09 AM on 11 May 98 by PXX::MICHAEL. Id: 65015. To: freebsd-questions@FreeBSD.ORG I am aware that whenever you establish a user PPP connection that the port associated with the connection is 3000 plus the tunnel device number used. My question is, whenever you use tunneling (i.e. a TCP-type PPP connection) does this follow the same philosophy. For example, just say I have the receiving machine setup to receive connections on port 2800... basically I am a little confused as to what goes on from here. In general, what I want to do is set aside the ports 3000 -> 3004 for dial-out and dial-in connections, and 3005 -> 3049 for tunneling connections. Now take the following scenario for example: say I have established 3 dial-in connections and 1 dial-out (i.e. ports 3000 -> 3003), then a tunnel comes through (on 2800; and hence, now 5 tun devices) then another dial-in connection comes in (hence, now 6 tun devices being used), does it get assigned to port 3005. Hope I've explained it in a manner that u can understand \=]. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ If this is true, then in the manual it suggests that some port on the receiving machine needs to be configured to receive incoming tunnel connections. In light of this, why can't we just connect to port 3000, PPP will assign us the appropriate port (3000 plus the tunnel device) and go from there?? Cheers again, Mick To Unsubscribe: send mail to majordomo@FreeBSD.org with "unsubscribe freebsd-questions" in the body of the message
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