Date: Sun, 08 Aug 2004 22:43:26 +0200 From: Remko Lodder <remko@elvandar.org> To: Glenn Sieb <ges+lists@wingfoot.org> Cc: freebsd-doc@freebsd.org Subject: Re: Questionable statement in article Message-ID: <4116906E.8060408@elvandar.org> In-Reply-To: <41168DF7.2090601@wingfoot.org> References: <1091989450.570.2.camel@dude.automatvapen.se> <20040808202351.GV87690@submonkey.net> <41168DF7.2090601@wingfoot.org>
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> But this only holds as long as code(bsd) > code(linux) to begin with.... > no? Do we know for a fact that code(bsd) > code(linux)? I know I've been > hard pressed to find software from vendors that was marketed as being > developed for BSD, as opposed to Linux or Solaris, etc.... > > Best, > G. You dont see the point i think, BSD can execute it's own code, and thus any software written for BSD itself, AND it has the power to execute Linux code, so that makes BSD (BSD+Linux) vs Linux (Linux) And since there is at least one product more on BSD then for Linux it is a correct statement.... > -- Kind regards, Remko Lodder |remko@elvandar.org Reporter DSINet |remko@dsinet.org Projectleader Mostly-Harmless |remko@mostly-harmless.nl
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